Hello and welcome to exampundit. Here is most awaited full practice paper of WBSEDCL Office Executive Exam 2017.
Data
Interpretation, Data Analysis – 20 Marks
Interpretation, Data Analysis – 20 Marks
Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below:
Marks Scored by Five Students in Languages (English, Hindi and Marathi):
1. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) ‘E’ scored the highest total marks
(b) ‘B’ and ‘D’ had the same score in Hindi
(c) A’s overall percentage is 50
(d) All the students scored maximum marks in Hindi
(e) None of these
2. What is the difference between the total marks obtained by B and the total marks obtained by C?
(a) 5 marks
(b) 2 marks
(c) 18 marks
(d) No Difference
(e) None of these
3. What is C’s overall approximate percentage?
(a) 56%
(b) 63%
(c) 70%
(d) 75%
(e) 51%
4. What is the respective ratio of D’s marks in English to B’s marks in English?
(a) 8 : 13
(b) 5 : 14
(c) 7 : 12
(d) 6 : 13
(e) None of these
5. What are the approximate average marks obtained by D?
(a) 38
(b) 43
(c) 50
(d) 54
(e) 47
Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below.
Percentage growth in population of six states A, B, C, D, E and F from 2012 to 2013 and 2013 to 2014.
6. Population of state ‘F’ in 2013 was approximately what percent of its population in 2014 ?
(a) 60
(b) 67
(c) 75
(d) 55
(e) None of these
7. If the population of state ‘B’ in the year 2012 was 5 lakh, what was approximately its population in the year 2014?
(a) 9.50 lakh
(b) 8 lakh
(c) 10.50 lakh
(d) 14.50 lakh
(e) None of these
8. If the population of states C and D in 2013 are in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively and the population of state ‘C’ in 2012 was 2.5 lakh, what was the population of state ‘D’ in 2013 ?
(a) 5.25 lakh
(b) 4.75 lakh
(c) 3.50 lakh
(d) 6 lakh
(e) None of these
9. In 2012 the population of states B and D are equal and the population of state B in 2014 is 4 lakh, what approx was the population of state ‘D’ in 2014?
(a) 3 lakh
(b) 3.50 lakh
(c) 6 lakh
(d) 5 lakh
(e) None of these
10. Population of state ‘E’ in 2012 was what fraction of its population in 2014?
(a) 2/3
(b) 4/5
(c) 5/4
(d) 3/2
(e) None of these
Direction (Q. 11-15): Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below
There are six rooms of different dimensions in a house. A drawing room measuring 20 m. × 18 m, a dining room measuring 8 m. × 8 m, two bedroom measuring 15 m × 12 m each, a kitchen measuring 10 m × 12 m and a bathroom measuring 6 m × 8 m. The height of the wall is 15 m. The total area of the house in 1000 m2. The family paints the walls of each room. The cost of painting drawing room, dining room and the bedrooms is Rs 50/m2 and that of kitchen and bathroom is Rs 35/m2.
11. What is the cost of painting the bedrooms?
(a) Rs 40500
(b) Rs 28350
(c) Rs 81000
(d) Rs 56700
(e) None of these
12. If the floor of remaining area has to be carpeted at the rate of Rs 16/m2, what will be the cost?
(a) Rs 800
(b) Rs 768
(c) Rs 720
(d) Rs 832
(e) Rs 760
13. The cost of painting drawing room is what percentage of painting the bedrooms together?
(a) 60.57%
(b) 70.37%
(c) 79.34%
(d) 82.35%
(e) 62.33%
14. What in the total cost of painting the house?
(a) Rs 188900
(b) Rs 198900
(c) Rs 189800
(d) Rs 200000
(e) Rs 199800
15. What is the respective ratio of cost of painting, drawing, dining and bedroom together and kitchen and bathroom together?
(a) 7 : 3
(b) 30 : 71
(c) 3 : 7
(d) 30 : 7
(e) 71 : 30
Study the following pie-chart carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Cost estimated by a family in renovation of their house
Total estimated cost is Rs1,20,000
16. What is the difference in the amount estimated by the family on interior decoration and that on architect’s fees?
(a) Rs10,000
(b) Rs9,500
(c) Rs7,200
(d) Rs9,000
(e) None of these
17. During the process of renovation, the family actually incurred miscellaneous expenditure of Rs10,200. The miscellaneous expenditure incurred by the family is what percentage of the total estimated cost?
(a) 9.5%
(b) 9%
(c) 8.5%
(d) 10.5%
(e) None of these
18. Other than getting the discount of 12% on the estimated cost of furniture and the actual miscellaneous expenditure being Rs10,200 instead of the estimated one, the family’s estimated cost is correct. What is the total amount spend by the family in renovating its house?
(a) Rs1,16,728
(b) Rs1,15,926
(c) Rs1,19,500
(d) Rs1,16,500
(e) None of these
19. What is the cost estimated by the family on painting and flooring together?
(a) Rs36,500
(b) Rs34,800
(c) Rs36,000
(d) Rs34,500
(e) None of these
20. The family gets a discount on furniture and pays 12% less than the estimated cost on furniture. What is the amount spent on furniture?
(a) Rs13,200
(b) Rs14,526
(c) Rs13,526
(d) Rs13,728
(e) None of these
Reasoning –
15 Marks
15 Marks
Directions(21-25): Read the following information carefully and answer below questions
P, Q, R, S, T and X are members of a family. There are two married couples. Q is an engineer and is father of T. X is grandfather of R and is a lawyer. S is grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one engineer, one lawyer, one teacher one housewife and two students in the family.
21. Who is the husband of P?
(a) R
(b) X
(c) Q
(d) S
(e) T
22. Which of the following are the two married couples?
(a) XS, QP
(b) XS, QT
(c) XS, RP
(d) TS, RX
(e) None of these
23. Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?
(a) Q, X, T
(b) X, T
(c) Q, X, P
(d) Q, X
(e) None of these
24. Who is the sister of T?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) P
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
25. Which of the following can be P’s profession?
(a) Housewife
(b) Engineer
(c) Teacher
(d) Engineer or Teacher
(e) Housewife or Teacher
(26-30) In a certain code language ‘market retail price’ is written as ‘cut nut but’, ‘gross domestic price’ is written as ‘nut hut kat’, ‘market wholesale price’ is written as ‘sat nut cut’, and ‘net gross demand’ is written as ‘hut put vat’.
26. What is the code for ‘market’ in the given code language?
(a) cut
(b) but
(c) sat
(d) nut
(e) None of these
27. What is the code for ‘wholesale’ in the given code language?
(a) hut
(b) sat
(c) nut
(d) kat
(e) None of these
28. What may be the possible code for ‘gross demand market’?
(a) cut but sat
(b) hut put cut
(c) vat sat hut
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
29. What may be the possible code for ‘net price demand’ is the given code language?
(a) put vat hut
(b) nut put sat
(c) vat put nut
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
30. What does ‘put’ stand for?
(a) wholesale
(b) price
(c) net
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
31. DGPGJ : MPQPS : : KNENQ : ….?
(a) RUFUX
(b) RFUFX
(c) RXUXF
(d) RFUFX
32. CFIL : PSVY : : HKNQ : ?
(a) NPSV
(b) LPSY
(c) LORU
(d) MOQT
33. 122 : 170 : : 290 : ?
(a) 299
(b) 315
(c) 332
(d) 362
34. 3 : 3 3/8 : : 5 : ?
(a) 5 5/8
(b) 5 3/8
(c) 5 1/8
(d) 2 5/8
35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in English alphabet and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group.
(a) HJG
(b) PQN
(c) DEB
(d) TUR
English
Grammar & Comprehension – 20 Marks
Grammar & Comprehension – 20 Marks
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-40): In the following Five Questions, sentences given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.
36. You must ______ your career with all seriousness.
(a) follow (b) complete
(c) direct (d) pursue
37. Making pies and cakes _____ Mrs. Reddy’s speciality.
(a) are (b) were
(c) is (d) has
38. The deserted garden was infested ________ weeds.
(a) for (b) into
(c) on (d) with
39. He went there _______ .
(a) walking on foot (b) by foot
(c) with foot (d) on foot
40. After your long illness I am happy to see you.
(a) up and about (b) by and by
(c) up and down (d) up and round
Directions (41-45) : In the following questions, you have a brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer of each question out of the four alternatives.
Among the natural resources which can be called upon in national plan for development, possibly the most important is human labour; without productive labour force, including effective leadership and intelligent middle management, no amount of foreign assistance of natural wealth can ensure successful development and modernization. One essential factor is usually overlooked or ignored. The forgotten factor is the role of women. Development will be handicapped as long as women remain second-class citizens, uneducated, without any voice in family or community decisions, without legal or economic status, married when they are still practically children, and henceforth producing one baby after another, often only to see half of them die before they are of school age. We can enhance development by improving ‘woman power’ by giving women opportunity to develop themselves.
41. The most important natural resource for national development is
(a) human labour
(b) effective leadership
(c) intelligent middle management
(d) foreign assistance
42. Human power means
(a) only men
(b) only women
(c) people including children
(d) both men and women
43. The ignored and overlooked factor in the development of the nation is
(a) role of women
(b) role of middle management
(c) role of child labour
(d) role of foreign assistance
44. Women have hardly
(a) any voice in family or community decisions
(b) any economic or legal status
(c) any voice in family or community decision or legal or economic status
(d) any voice to decide about themselves
45. Woman power is
(a) an essential power in the development of the nation
(b) an essential power in child production
(c) an essential power in marriages
(d) an essential factor for the death of children
Directions (46-50) : In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
46. His wife has a twin who resembles each other so much that at first he had great trouble telling………..
(a) one from the other
(b) one from another
(c) each other
(d) who is which
47. At great length, that night they ….. the feasibility of their plans.
(a) discussed about
(b) discussed
(c) discussed regarding
(d) discussed on
48. Will those of you who have objections to this proposal …… put up your hands, please?
(a) discussed
(b) being discussed
(c) having discussed
(d) discussing
49. She has frequent toothaches. So she decided to …….
(a) remove her teeth
(b) removing her teeth
(c) have her teeth removed
(d) having her teeth removed
50. At one time, Mr. Pandey … this supermarket.
(a) was owing
(b) use to own
(c) had owned
(d) owned
Directions (Q. 51–55) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5), ie ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
51. It was an evening of 1)/fun and frolic as the city’s glitterati 2)/and high-profile businessmen made sure 3)/ that they didn’t miss the show. 4)/No error 5)
52. Results founding that boys not only 1)/play more than girls, but 2)/they start earlier, an outcome that 3)/could be clearly related to a cultural influence. 4)/No error 5)
53. Videogames may not 1)/necessarily adversely affect 2)/ the academic results in children 3)/ contrary to most parents’s perception. 4)/ No error 5)
54. Celebrities showed their childlike side 1)/yesterday, as most of them turn up wearing 2)/cartoon T-shirts for the screening of 3)/the latest animated film in town. 4)/No error 5)
55. The study focusing exclusively to 1)/critically ill children found that children with chronic illnesses, 2)/especially respiratory illnesses, are most likely, 3)/to develop influenza that requires critical care. 4)/ No error 5)
Quantitative
Aptitude – 20 Marks
Aptitude – 20 Marks
56. 3, 14, 66, 312, 1640, ?
1) 9950 2) 9960 3) 9970 4) 9980 5) 9990
57. 3, 8, 16, 15, 42, 29, 81, ?
1) 50 2) 54 3) 72 4) 78 5) 96
58. 6, 42, 114, 258, 546, ?
1) 1116 2) 1118 3) 1120 4) 1122 5) 1124
59. 484, 729, 1024, 1369, 1764, ?
1) 2204 2) 2206 3) 2209 4) 2212 5) 2215
60. 27 76 272 713 1497 ?
1) 2720 2) 2721 3) 2722 4) 2723 5) 2724
61. The sum of the interior angles of a convex rectilinear figure is equal to the sum of the exterior angles. Then the number of sides is.
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
62. If a commission of 10% is given on the marked price of an article, the gain is 20%. The gain percent, when the commission is increased to 20%, will be
(A) 6 2/3 (B) 5
(C) 8 (D) 5 1/3
63. The difference between a discount of 40% on Rs. 500 and two successive discount of 30% and 10% on the same amount is.
(A) Rs. 15 (B) Rs. 0
(C) Rs. 20 (D) Rs.10
64. A train with a uniform speed passes a platform, 122 meters long, in 17 seconds and a bridge, 210 meters long, in 25 seconds. The speed of the train is.
(A) 46.5 km/hour (B) 37.5 km/hour
(C) 37.6 km/hour (D) 39.6 km/hour
65. If x : y = 2:5 , then (5x + 3y) : (5x – 3y) is equal to
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) -3 (D) -5
66. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% of water. How much water must be added to make the water 20% in the new mixture?
(A) 10 litres (B) 7 litres
(C) 5 litres (D) 3 litres
67. A circle and a square have equal areas. The ratio of a side of the square and the radius of the circle is?
(A) 1 : √π(B) √π : 1
(C) 1 : π (D) π : 1
68. If A : B = 1 : 2, B : C = 3 : 4, C : D = 6 : 9 and D : E = 12 : 16, then A : B : C : D : E is equal to.
(A) 1 : 3 : 6 : 12 : 16 (B) 2 : 4 : 6 : 9 : 16
(C) 3 : 4 : 8 : 12 :16 (D) 3 : 6 : 8 : 12 : 16
69. A sum of money doubles itself at some rate of compound interest in 15 years. In how many years will it become eight times of itself with the same rate?
(A) 30 (B) 45
(C) 48 (D) 60
70. The value of a property decreases every year at the rate of 5%. If its present value is Rs. 4, 11, 540, what was its value 3 years ago?
(A) Rs. 4, 50, 000 (B) Rs. 4, 60, 000
(C) Rs. 4, 75, 000 (D) Rs. 4, 80, 000
71. The LCM of two numbers is 1540 and their HCF is 20. If one of the numbers is 11 × 20, find the other number.
1) 160
2) 140
3) 130
4) 180
5) None of these
72. Two sums of money are proportional to 7 : 9. If the first one is Rs.140, what is the other?
1) Rs.180
2) Rs.200
3) Rs.240
4) Rs.220
5) None of these
73. In how many different ways can the letters of the word PRACTICE be arranged?
1) 26100
2) 20160
3) 21060
4) 20106
5) None of these
74. How long does a 110-m-long train running at a speed of 54 kmph take to cross a 205-m-long-bridge?
1) 40 seconds
2) 42 seconds
3) 21 seconds
4) 20 seconds
5) None of these
75. A man swims 21 km downstream and 14 km upstream, taking 7 hours each time. What is the speed of the stream?
1) 2 kmph
2) 1.5 kmph
3) 1 kmph
4) ½ kmph
5) None of these
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Computer
Awareness(MS Office) – 10 Marks
Awareness(MS Office) – 10 Marks
76. You can auto fit the width of column by
a) Double clicking on the column name on column header
b) Double click on the cell pointer in worksheet
c) Double clicking on column right border on column header
d) Double clicking on the column left border of column header
77. Long text can be broken down into many lines within a cell. You can do this through
a) Wrap Text in Format >> Cells
b) Justify in Edit >> Cells
c) Text Wrapping in Format >> Cells, Layout tab
d) All of above
78. MS Excel provides the default value for step in Fill Series dialog box
a) 0
b) 1
c) 5
d) 10
79. When a row of data is to be converted into columns
a) Copy the cells in row, select the same number of cells in row and paste
b) Copy the cells in column then choose Edit >> Paste Special, then click Transpose and OK
c) Copy the cells then go to Format >> Cells then on Alignment tab click Transpose check box and click OK
d) Select the cells then place the cell pointer on new cell and choose Edit >> Paste Special, mark Transpose check box and click OK.
80. Ctrl + D shortcut key in Excel will
a) Open the font dialog box
b) Apply double underline for the active cell
c) Fill down in the selection
d) None of above
81. Which of the following provides a means of printing out feature notes with a miniature slide on a printed page?
1) Slide with animation
2) Outline view
3) Notes page
4) Audience handout
5) None of these
82. Which command brings you to the first slide in your presentation?
1) Next slide button
2) Page up
3) Ctrl + Home
4) Ctrl + End
5) None of these
83. In normal view, how can you quickly change to handout master view?
1) Click the outline tab and select handout master view
2) Press the shift key and click the handout master view button
3) On the view menu, click slide sorter, and click handouts.
4) All of above
5) None of these
84. How can you quickly reinstate a deleted footer placeholder in master view?
1) Create a new slide master
2) Re-apply the footer placeholder
3) Re-apply the slide layout
4) All of the above
5) None of these
85. Which of the following can you use to add times to the slides in a presentation?
1) Slide show menu
2) Rehearse timings button
3) Slide transition button
4) All of the above
5) None of these
General
Awareness – 15 Marks
Awareness – 15 Marks
86. First Prime Minister of India born after Independence?
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Chandra Shekhar
(C) Rajiv Gandhi
(D) Narendra Damodar Das Modi
87. Which of the following acid is used in battery?
(A) Hydrochloric acid
(B) Hydrofluoric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid
(D) Sulphurous acid
88. Sexually transmitted disease caused by treponema palladium is
(A) Syphilis
(B) Genital Herpes
(C) Gonorrhoea
(D) AIDS
89. What is India’s rank in the 2016 sustainable Development Goal Index?
(A) 110th
(B) 129th
(C) 63rd
(D) 88th
90. On which date, the World Milk Day is observed?
(A) 1st June
(B) 4th July
(C) 25th October
(D) 26th November
91. The ambassador of Emperor James-I, who reached in the court of Jahangir in 1615 was –
(A) Sir James Hay
(B) Sir Thomas Roe
(C) Sir Thomas Howard
(D) Sir John Digby
92. Which of the following commission was formed in 1983 to recommend the relationship and balance of power between Central and State government?
(A) Kalelkar Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Narendran Commission
(D) Mandal Commission
93. Which of the following is the busiest navigable river of the river?
(A) Volga
(B) Seine
(C) Rhine
(D) Danube
94. A pond of water appears less deep due to –
(A) Reflection
(B) Diffraction
(C) Refraction
(D) Polarisation
95. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Orange
(D) Red
96. In India, inflation is measured by the:-
(A) Consumers price index for urban non manual workers
(B) Consumers price index for agricultural
(C) National income deflation
(D) Wholesale price index
97. Who has won the 2016 Fide Women’s Grand Prix Trophy?
(A) Koneru Humpy
(B) Olga Girya
(C) Harika Dronavalli
(D) Geetha Narayanan Gopal
98. Atomic Power Plant works on the principle of:
(A) Fission
(B) Fusion
(C) Thermal combustion
(D) Combined effect of all the above three
99. In which country is world’s largest temple located?
(A) Indonesia
(B) Combodia
(C) United states
(D) India
100. Which among the following places have given the earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian subcontinent?
(A) Pratapgarh
(B) Mehrgarh
(C) Quetta
(D) Kalat
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